BIOLOGY1361
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4 SOLUTIONS
Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems
Chapter 23: (1 – 23) on page 662
1. Explain what occurs between the time of ovulation and the implantation of the fertilized in the uterus. After ovulation, the ovum enters the abdominal cavity and then finds its way into the uterine tubes. Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs in the outer one third of the uterine tubes; the fertilized egg is then called a zygote. After about 3 days of constant cell division, a solid mass of cells, called the morula, is formed. The cells of the morula continue to divide by the time the developing embryo reaches the uterus, it is a hollow ball of cells called a blastocyst. At this time, implantation into the uterine wall occurs.
2. Explain the function of the chorion and placenta.
a. Chorion – develops into an important fetal membrane in the placenta. The chorionic villi connect the blood vessels of the chorion to the placenta.
b. Placenta – The placenta anchors the developing fetus to the uterus and provides a bridge for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and baby.
3. Name the three primary germ layers, and name three structures that develop from each layer.
a. One - Endoderm
b. Two - Mesoderm
c. Three – Ectoderm
(there are too many to list for each)
4. Define histogenesis and organogenesis.
a. Histogenesis – development of the primary germ layers into the various tissues of the body.
b. Organogenesis – development of the various tissues into organs
5. Describe and give the approximate length of each of the three stages of labor.
a. Stage One – onset of uterine contractions until dilation of the uterus is complete, from 6 hours to 24 hours;
b. Stage Two – this begins at maximum cervical dilation and lasts until the baby exits through the vagina, usually from a few minutes to an hour
c. Stage Three – begins at birth of the baby and ends when the placenta is expelled through the vagina; this lasts about 15 minutes after birth of the baby.
6. What is the difference between identical and fraternal twins?
a. Identical twins have identical DNA
b. Fraternal twins are no closer in DNA than any two siblings
7. What is an ectopic pregnancy? Where is it most like to occur? This happens when a zygote is implanted outside the uterus. The most common type of ectopic occurs in the uterine tube. This is called tubal pregnancy.
8. What is placenta previa. What is abruptio placentae?
a. Placenta previa – this occurs when the blastocyst implants in the uterine wall too near the cervical opening of the uterus
b. Abruptio placentae – This happens when the placenta separate from the uterine wall after pregnancy of more than 20 weeks.
9. What’s preeclampsia? – A disorder characterized by the onset of acute hypertension after the 24th week of pregnancy, accompanied by proteinuria and edema. It can result in complication such as abruptio placentae, stroke, hemorrhage, fetal malnutrition, and low birth weight.
10. What is a teratogen? An agent that can disrupt the normal histogenesis and organogenesis, causing a congenital abnormality in the fetus.
11. What is the stimulus for a baby’s first breath? An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in blood cells after the umbilical is terminated.
12. Name three developmental changes that occur during infancy.
a. One – birth weight doubles during first 4 months, and triples in first year
b. Two – Length increases by 50% first year
c. Three – Baby fat decreases
d. And others
13. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during childhood. Rapid growth, less chubby, face matures, baby starts smoking cigars
14. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adolescence. Rapid physical growth; sexual maturity; secretion of sex hormones; and stuff like that.
15. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adulthood. Maturation of bone, full closure of plates, balding patterns, halitosis, and farts
16. What is progeria? – A genetic disorder causing advance aging in children.
17. Explain the effects of aging on the skeletal system. Bones undergo changes in texture and strength
18. Explain the effects of aging on the respiratory system. Harder cartilage, especially around rib cage
19. Explain the effects of aging on the cardiovascular system. Degenerative heart and blood vessel disease.
20. Explain the effects of aging on vision. Progressive myopia may give way to glaucoma and such.
21. Where do the nutrients used by the zygote between the time of fertilization and implantation come from? Egg cell.
22. Explain the evolution of the function of the yolk sac. Mostly to make blood cells in homo sapien sapien.
23. What hormones are produced by the placenta? What is their function? Chorionic gonadotropins, estrogen, progesterone, and they help maintain the uterine wall during pregnancy.
Chapter 24: (1-17) on page 684
1. Explain how the DNA code is able to regulate the biochemistry of the cell. Each gene is a sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule, containing a genetic code that the cell transcribes to a messenger RNA molecule. Each messenger RNA molecule moves to a ribosome where the code is translated into a specific protein molecule. Many of the protein molecules are enzymes that permit specific biochemical reactions to occur.
2. As they are used in this chapter, define chromosome and gene. The first is DNA, and the second is a code in the DNA.
3. What is meant by independent assortment? As the sperm and egg are formed, chromosome pairs are separate; the original maternal and paternal chromosomes get mixed up and re-distribute the sleeve independently of the other chromosome pairs. According each sperm and egg is like to have a different test of 23 chromosomes. This process I called independent assortment of chromosomes, and it ensures that each offspring will very likely be genetically unique.
4. Define or explain the terms dominant, recessive, and codominant in regards to genetics.
a. Dominant – a gene that is able to express itself and mask the presence of a recessive train
b. Recessive – a gene that is only able to express itself in the absence of a dominant gene
c. Co-dominant – gens that will express themselves differently in the respect of co-dominant genes
5. What is a sex-linked trait? Nonsexual traits that are carried on the sex-determining chromosomes. Because most are carried on the X chromosome, they are also referred to as X-lined traits.
6. Define or explain the terms nondisjunction, trisomy, and monosomy.
a. Nondisjunction – when a pair of chromosomes fails to separate
b. Trisomy – A triplet of a chromosome pair in a cell rather than the usual two.
c. Monosomy – there is a single chromosome of a chromosome pair rather than the usual two.
7. What’s a pedigree chart? A family tree
8. What is a Punnett square? A grid used to determine the probability of an inherited and genetic trait.
9. What is a karyotype? – Photograph of chromosomes that are cut and pasted on a chart. What are the two methods used to harvest cells for a karyotype? The cells can be harvested for karyotype by scraping the inside of the cheek, or by taking a sample of blood containing white blood cells. The cells can be harvested from a fetus by amniocentesis or villus sampling.
10. Explain the difference between gene augmentation and gene replacement therapy. In gene augmentation therapy, normal genes are introduced in to the body with the hope that the genes will add to or augment the production of a needed protein. In gene replacement therapy, the genes that specify production of abnormal , disease-causing proteins are replaced by normal or therapeutic genes.
11. Name and briefly describe the two single-gene diseases discussed in this chapter. Cystic fibrosis is caused by recessive genes in chromosomes pair 7. The primary effect is the impairment of chloride ion transport across cell membranes. The disruption causes exocrine cells to secrete thick mucus and swat. The thickened mucus is especially trouble in the g.i. and respiratory tract where it can cause obstruction. Phylketornuir is causes b the recessive genets that fail to produced the enzyme phelalanine hydroxilase. This enzyme is needed to convert the amino acid phenylalanine into thyroxide. Phylalanine absorbed from the ingested food accumulates, resulting in the abnormal presence of phylketone in the urine. A high concentration of phelalanine destroys brain tissue; babies born with this condition are at risk for progressive mental retardation and possibly death.
12. Name and briefly describe the three chromosomal diseases discussed in this chapter. Indicate whether the diseases are the result of the trisomy or monosomy.
a. One – Down Syndrome
b. Two - Klinefelter Syndrome xxy
c. Three - Turner Syndrome xo
13. Explain why the particular sperm that fertilizes the egg determine the sex of the offspring. The female as the sex chromosomes of xx; the male has xy; all of the eggs produced by the male have x chromosomes. The permp permitted by the male will have either X or Y. If the sperm with X fertilizes the eggs, a female offspring will be produce. If the sperm with a y chromosome fertilizes the egg, a male offspring will be produced.
14. What is crossing-over? How does this process add to generic variation?
During one phase of mitosis, pairs of matching chromosomes line of up along the equator of the cell and exchange genes. This process is called crossing over; genes from a particular location over to the same location of the matching genes. Sometimes a whole group stays together and crosses over as a single unit. Crossing over changes the linkage patterns on individual chromosomes and thereby increases the genetic variation among offspring of a set of parents.
15. Explain why men have more six-linked disorders than women. Many sex linked disorders in men are recessive Because women have two X chromosome, both chromosomes would have to carry the trait to be expressed. Because men have only one x chromosome, if that chromosome carries the train it will be express because there is no corresponding gene on the Y chromosome. Therefore, in men, even recessive trains on the X chromosome act if they were dominant traits.
16. Which type of genetic mutation has the greatest long-term impact on the population? Harmful or beneficial? Explain your answer. Beneficial mutations allow organization to adapt to their environment; therefore they tend to spread throughout a population over the course of several generations. Harmful mutations inhibit survival and are not as likely to spread through the population.
17. If parents are concern that their child might be born with Down syndrome, what would be the best way to determine this: a pedigree, a Punnett square, or karyotype? Explain your answer. A karyotype would be the best method of determining whether a child has Down syndrome. Down Syndrome is a chromosome disorder (trisoly21) A karyotype looks at chromosomes so that the presence of an extra chromosome if the 21st pair would determined
END
Tuesday, February 23, 2010
LESSON 11
Bio 1361 LESSON 11
TUESDAY, February 23, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Running Grades
C. Gather overdue papers
D. Questions
II ESSAY 4 FOR THIS WEEK: Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
III Review of Lesson 10 – Comments on Growth
IV HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4: Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
V LESSON 11: Review Chapters 13 – 24 to Prepare for Final Exam, for Rest of the Period
*From Textbook
TUESDAY, February 23, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Running Grades
C. Gather overdue papers
D. Questions
II ESSAY 4 FOR THIS WEEK: Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
III Review of Lesson 10 – Comments on Growth
IV HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4: Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
V LESSON 11: Review Chapters 13 – 24 to Prepare for Final Exam, for Rest of the Period
*From Textbook
Monday, February 22, 2010
LESSON 10
Bio 1361 LESSON 10
MONDAY, February 22, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Running Grades
C. Gather overdue papers
D. Questions
II ESSAY 4 FOR THIS WEEK: Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
III Review of Lesson 9 - Chapters 23, 24: Growth
IV HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4: Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
V LESSON 10: Review Chapters 1 – 12 to Prepare for Final Exam, for Rest of the Period
*From Textbook
MONDAY, February 22, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Running Grades
C. Gather overdue papers
D. Questions
II ESSAY 4 FOR THIS WEEK: Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
III Review of Lesson 9 - Chapters 23, 24: Growth
IV HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4: Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
V LESSON 10: Review Chapters 1 – 12 to Prepare for Final Exam, for Rest of the Period
*From Textbook
Sunday, February 21, 2010
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4
BIOLOGY1361
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4
Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems
Chapter 23: (1 – 23) on page 662
1. Explain what occurs between the time of ovulation and the implantation of the fertilized in the uterus.
2. Explain the function of the chorion and placenta.
3. Name the three primary germ layers, and name three structures that develop from each layer.
4. Define histogenesis and organogenesis.
5. Describe and give the approximate length of each of the three stages of labor.
6. What is the difference between identical and fraternal twins?
7. What is an ectopic pregnancy? Where is it most like to occur?
8. What is placenta previa. What ia abruptio placentae?
9. What’s preeclampsia?
10. What is a teratogen?
11. What is the stiumulus for a baby’s first breath?
12. Name three developmental changes that occur during infancy.
13. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during childhood.
14. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adolescence.
15. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adulthood.
16. What is progeria?
17. Explain the effects of again on the skeletal system.
18. Explain the effects of again on the respiratory system.
19. Explain the effects of again on the cardiovascular system.
20. Explain the effects of again on vision.
21. Where do the nutrients used by the zygote between the time of fertilization and implantation come from?
22. Explain the evolution of the function of the yolk sac.
23. What hormones are produced by the placenta? What is their function?
Chapter 24: (1-17) on page 684
1. Explain how the DNA code is able to regulate the biochemistry of the cell.
2. As they are used in this chapter, define chromosome and gene.
3. What is meant by independent assortment?
4. Define or explain the terms dominant, recessive, and codominant in regards to genetics.
5. What is a sex-linked trait?
6. Define or explain the terms nondisjunction, trisomy, and monosomy.
7. What’s a pedigree chart?
8. What is a Punnett square?
9. What is a karyotype? What are the two methods used to harvest cells for a karyotype?
10. Explain the difference between gene augmentation and gene replacement therapy.
11. Name and briefly describe the two single-gene diseases discussed in this chapter.
12. Name and briefly describe the three chromosomal diseases discussed in this chapter. Indicate whether the diseases are the result of the trisomy or monosomy.
13. Explain why the particular sperm that fertilizes the egg determine she sex of the offspring.
14. What is crossing-over? How does this process add to generic variation?
15. Explain why men have more six-linked disorders than women.
16. Which type of genetic mutation has the greatest long-term impact on the population? Harmful or beneficial? Explain your answer.
17. If parents are concern that their child might be born with Down syndrome, what would be the best way to determine this: a pedigree, a Punnett square, or karyotype? Explain your answer.
END
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4
Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems
Chapter 23: (1 – 23) on page 662
1. Explain what occurs between the time of ovulation and the implantation of the fertilized in the uterus.
2. Explain the function of the chorion and placenta.
3. Name the three primary germ layers, and name three structures that develop from each layer.
4. Define histogenesis and organogenesis.
5. Describe and give the approximate length of each of the three stages of labor.
6. What is the difference between identical and fraternal twins?
7. What is an ectopic pregnancy? Where is it most like to occur?
8. What is placenta previa. What ia abruptio placentae?
9. What’s preeclampsia?
10. What is a teratogen?
11. What is the stiumulus for a baby’s first breath?
12. Name three developmental changes that occur during infancy.
13. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during childhood.
14. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adolescence.
15. Briefly explain what biological developments occur during adulthood.
16. What is progeria?
17. Explain the effects of again on the skeletal system.
18. Explain the effects of again on the respiratory system.
19. Explain the effects of again on the cardiovascular system.
20. Explain the effects of again on vision.
21. Where do the nutrients used by the zygote between the time of fertilization and implantation come from?
22. Explain the evolution of the function of the yolk sac.
23. What hormones are produced by the placenta? What is their function?
Chapter 24: (1-17) on page 684
1. Explain how the DNA code is able to regulate the biochemistry of the cell.
2. As they are used in this chapter, define chromosome and gene.
3. What is meant by independent assortment?
4. Define or explain the terms dominant, recessive, and codominant in regards to genetics.
5. What is a sex-linked trait?
6. Define or explain the terms nondisjunction, trisomy, and monosomy.
7. What’s a pedigree chart?
8. What is a Punnett square?
9. What is a karyotype? What are the two methods used to harvest cells for a karyotype?
10. Explain the difference between gene augmentation and gene replacement therapy.
11. Name and briefly describe the two single-gene diseases discussed in this chapter.
12. Name and briefly describe the three chromosomal diseases discussed in this chapter. Indicate whether the diseases are the result of the trisomy or monosomy.
13. Explain why the particular sperm that fertilizes the egg determine she sex of the offspring.
14. What is crossing-over? How does this process add to generic variation?
15. Explain why men have more six-linked disorders than women.
16. Which type of genetic mutation has the greatest long-term impact on the population? Harmful or beneficial? Explain your answer.
17. If parents are concern that their child might be born with Down syndrome, what would be the best way to determine this: a pedigree, a Punnett square, or karyotype? Explain your answer.
END
Friday, February 19, 2010
LESSON 9
Bio 1361 LESSON 9
THURSDAY, February 18, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Turn in Homework 3
B. Turn in Essay 3
C. Turn in any other past work
D. Running Grades
E. Questions
II Test 3 on Chapters 15-22
III Return of Papers (Labs, Essays, Homework 3, etc.)
IV Mind Game 3 (Crossword Puzzle)
V Review of Lesson 8. Chapters 20, 21, 22:
Fluids, Electrolytes, Reproduction
VI LESSON 9. Chapters 23, 24: Growth
VII HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4:
Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
IX ESSAY 4 FOR NEXT WEEK.
Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
X READ, ANSWER QUESTIONS ON HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4 UNTIL END OF PERIOD
*From Textbook
THURSDAY, February 18, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Turn in Homework 3
B. Turn in Essay 3
C. Turn in any other past work
D. Running Grades
E. Questions
II Test 3 on Chapters 15-22
III Return of Papers (Labs, Essays, Homework 3, etc.)
IV Mind Game 3 (Crossword Puzzle)
V Review of Lesson 8. Chapters 20, 21, 22:
Fluids, Electrolytes, Reproduction
VI LESSON 9. Chapters 23, 24: Growth
VII HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4:
Read Chapters* 23, 24 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 23) on page 662 and (1-17) on page 684. Turn in Thursday, 2/25
IX ESSAY 4 FOR NEXT WEEK.
Nicolaes Tulp (1593-1674), due Thursday, 2/25
X READ, ANSWER QUESTIONS ON HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 4 UNTIL END OF PERIOD
*From Textbook
Wednesday, February 17, 2010
HOMEWORK 3 SOLUTIONS
BIOLOGY1361
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3 SOLUTIONS
Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems
Chapter 15: (1 – 24) on page 447
1. Define lymph and explain its function. It is a fluid found between the cells of the human body. It enters the lymph vessels by filtration through pores in the walls of capillaries. The lymph then travels to at least one lymph node before emptying ultimately into the right or the left subclavian vein, where it mixes back with blood.
2. Name the two major lymphatic ducts and the areas of the body each of them drains.
a. Right – right upper extremity, head, neck, etc.
b. Thoracic – the remaining ¾ of body
3. Describe the structure of a lymph node. From pinhead to lima bean in size with one or more vessels entering or leaving
4. What is lymphedema? What is the cause of elephantiasis?
a. Lymphedema is a condition of localized fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system
b. Elephantiasis is a disease that is characterized by the thickening of the skin and underlying tissues, especially in the legs, male genitals and female breasts. In some cases, the disease can cause certain body parts, such as the scrotum, to swell to the size of a softball or even a basketball.
5. Explain the defense function of the lymph node. Filter bacteria and other abnormal stuff, including dirt, bad cells, etc.
6. Where is the thymus gland? What are its functions?
a. Where – is a specialized organ of the lymphoid immune system in the mediastinum in the midline of the neck.
b. Functions - The only known function of the thymus is the production of T lymphocytes (T cells), which are critical cells of the adaptive immune system. The thymus is composed of two identical lobes and is located anatomically in the anterior superior mediastinumin front of the heart and behind the sternum
7. Name the three pairs of tonsils and give the location of each.
a. Tubal – aka pharyngeal, near the back opening of the nasal cavity
b. Palatine – on each side of the throat
c. Lingual – at the base of the tongue
8. Give the location and function of the spleen. High in the upper quadrant of the abdomen, lateral to the stomach. It removes many bacteria and bad things. It also destroys worn out red blood cells while saving the iron.
9. Explain the types of nonspecific immunity. It attacks any irritant or abnormal substance that threatens the environment. This includes, skin, mucous, mucous membranes, and tears.
10. Name and differentiate the four types of specific immunity.
a. Natural active – body gets sick and develops immunity
b. Natural passive – borrowed immunity (like a baby from its mom)
c. Artificial active – vaccination with dead or weak virus
d. Artificial passive – serum (borrowed from another person)
11. What are antibodies? What are antigens?
a. Antibodies – funny shaped protein
b. Antigens – unique shaped compound that fits “like a glove” to antibody
12. Explain the role of complement in the immune system. Like a mole or secret agent system, this is a highly specific pairs of antibody-antigens that seek out and destroy bad thingies.
13. Explain the role of the macrophage in the immune system. – Wandering killer cells that hunt out and slay evil invaders
14. Explain the development and function of B cells. First of all, B cells are above average, but not genius cells, like A cells. J.K. B cells form in the liver and bone marrow before birth, but only in the marrow as adults, and make antibodies
15. Explain the development and function of T cells. T stands for “thymus” and that’s where they’re made. They make poisons to cause the death and destruction of foreign spies.
16. What is an allergy? This is a hypersensitivity of the immune system to an outside irritant.
17. What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease. An overly weird response to self antigens, such as lupus.
18. What is iso-immunity? Gave an example of an iso-immunity disorder. An overly weird response to external antigens, such as in organ transplants.
19. What are HLAs? How are they related to tissue typing? HLA stands for “Human leukocyte antigen”, which are antigens found on tissue cells of the body.
20. What is SCID? What is its cause? “Severe Combined Immune Deficiency,” caused by a congenital deficiency.
21. List three causes of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
a. One – bad eating habits
b. Two - drugs
c. Three – disease or trauma
22. Differentiate between lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries. Explain how the different structure related to their function.
a. Lymphatic – tiny blind ended vessels distributed in tissue
b. Blood – tiny vessels that connect arterioles and venules.
23. Explain the role of lymph node in the spread of cancer. As this system picks up bad thingies and brings them to the nodes, they can carry cancer cells hither and yon.
24. Explain the difference in mechanism in the development of the allergic reaction of runny nose and hives, and the allergic reaction to poison ivy. Well, um, er, runny noses and such are caused by an immediate allergic reaction to something. However, a runny nose response is from B cells, while a poison ivy response is a delayed reaction due to T cells.
Chapter 16: (1-26) on pages 483-484
1. Differentiate between the respiratory membrane and the respiratory mucosa.
a. Respiratory membrane separates the alveoli from the blood
b. Respiratory mucosa is a mucous membrane that lines the respiratory tubes
2. List the function of the paranasal sinus. First, to drain nasal cavities; second, to make the skull lighter (less bone in the head); third, to resonate sounds we make.
3. What is the function of the auditory tube? It allows air pressure equilibrium in the nasal region
4. What is the function of the epiglottis? A cartilage trap door to prevent food and drink from going into the lungs
5. Describe, in decrease order of size, the air tubes of the lung. Trachea, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi
6. What constitutes an upper respiratory infection? An infection of the upper respiratory region, like ear, nose, throat, etc.
7. Describe rhinitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis.
a. Rhinitis – infection of the nose area
b. Pharyngitis – of the pharynx
c. Laryngitis – of the larynx
8. What is IRDS? What substance is missing from the lunch that causes IRDS? “Infant respiratory distress syndrome” is a breathing problem for newborns, especially if they are very small or premature.
9. Describe the pleura What is the function of the pleural fluid? Pleura cover the outer surface of the lungs and the surface of the ribs to act as a lubricant to decrease friction between the two
10. What is atelectasis? It’s bad. A collapsed lung.
11. Describe Cheyne-Stokes respiration. Not to be confused with the Cheney-Biden disagreements, this instead is a stop-go breathing pattern caused by injury, disease, heart attack, or drug o.d.
12. Differentiate between external, internal, and cellular respiration. The first is outside the cell between lungs and blood; the second is between blood and cells; the third is when the cells use the oxygen in combustion to create energy.
13. Explain the mechanical process of inspiration. In this course, it means when one breathes in, and what happens to the lungs and muscles around there.
14. Explain the mechanical process of expiration. – Exhaling and stuff.
15. Explain how gas is exchanged between the lungs and the blood, and the blood and the tissues. First, by diffusion; second, by diffusion. Confusion?
16. How is oxygen carried in the blood? On the backs of camels. JK. By the hemoglobin
17. Name and explain the volumes that make up the vital capacity. Tidal volume – the normal air that ebbs and flows; expiratory reserve is the extra air that one can exhale when forcing oneself to do so; inspiratory reserve – forced extra air intake, e.g. “take a deep breath,” and residual volume is what’s left over in one’s lungs after one exhales as much as possible.
18. Explain the function of chemoreceptors in regulating breathing. When there is too much carbon dioxide, too little oxygen, and/or too much acid in the blood, they send messages to the respiratory system to fix it.
19. Explain the function of stretch receptors in regulating breathing. These prevent one from inhaling too much and exploding the lungs.
20. What is bronchitis? Inflammation of the bronchi
21. Distinguish between lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia, and aspiration pneumonia.
a. Lobar – the entire lung
b. Broncho – scattered portions of the bronchial system
c. Aspiration – due to inhaling dust and shit
22. How is tuberculosis transmitted from person to person? What is the pathogen that causes TB? One can inhale a sneeze of an infected person, or eat/swallow the TB bacillus drops, from the mycobacterium tuberculosis.
23. What process in emphysema causes the reduction in lung surface area? Air gets trapped in alveoli, they expand, pop, and fuse with nearby tissue, thus decreasing the lung surface able to breathe in air
24. What occurs to restrict breathing in asthma? Spasms of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchial air passages.
25. Explain the effect smoking has on the body’s ability to move material trapped in the respiratory mucosa. Smoke paralyzes the cilia used to move the mucous along in its cleaning job, resulting in coughing. So, stop smoking.
26. Explain the role of other systems in the regulation of respiration. Everything in the body must work together to make sure that the lungs are okay.
Chapter 17: (1-26) on pages 521-522
1. Name and describe the 4 layers of the wall of the gastrointestinal (g.i.) tract.
a. One – mucosa, mucous membrane of the esophogus
b. Two – submucosa, tissue layer below the above
c. Three – sub-submucosa, ha ha, I mean muscularis, 2 layers of muscle tissue that contract to move food along
d. Four – serosa, outermost covering of the g.i. tract
2. What’s the function of the uvula and soft palate?
a. Uvula – prevents food from entering nasal cavities
b. Soft palate – also prevents food from entering nasal cavities
3. Explain the function of the different types of teeth.
a. Incisors, to rip and tear
b. Molars, to crush and pulverize
4. Describe the 3 main parts of the tooth.
a. One – Crown
b. Two – Neck
c. Three - Root
5. What is leukoplakia? What could possibly develop from that? White patches ini the mouth that may become tumors; often found in the mouths of smokers
6. Distinguish between gingivitis and periodontitis. Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums, while periodontitis is the inflammation of the root of the tooth near the bone
7. Name the 3 pairs of salivary glands and describe where the duct from each enters the mouth.
a. One – Parotid, below and in front of each ear
b. Two – Submandibular, either side of the tongue’s “frenulum”
c. Three – Sublingual, floor of the mouth
8. What is the function of the upper and lower esophageal sphincter muscles? Beats me. How about the cardiac and pyloric ones? Cardiac one keeps the swallowed food down, the other sends the food along into the intestine
9. Define peristalsis. Okay, I will. Wavelike muscles contraction of the muscularis layer that move food through the g.i. tract.
10. What are the 3 parts of the triple therapy used to treat ulcers?
a. One – bismuth subsalicylate (e.g., Pepto-Bismol)
b. Two – tetracycline (anti-biotic)
c. Three – metronidazole or chlarithromycin (more anti-biotic)
11. Explain how bile from the liver and gallbladder reaches the small intestine. What is the function of cholecystokinin? Well, the liver and gallbladder have pipes or ducts that combine into one large duck (quack quack) dumping the bile into a cool tiny organ called the duodenum. Meanwhile, cholecystokinin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder to shove the bile into the duodenum
12. What is the relationship between body weight and formation of gall stones? Fat people have more cholesterol, which leads to creation of gallstones.
13. What is hepatitis? What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?
Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver, with jaundice, liver enlargement, anorexia, abdominal discomfort, gray-white feces, dark urine.
14. What is contained in pancreatic juice? Enzymes that digest all types of foods
15. What do the bacteria in the large intestine contribute to the body? The by-products of these nice bacteria are vitamin K and Vitamin B
16. List the 7 subdivisions of new Pulte Homes. Just kidding. The 7 subdivisions of the large intestine: cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anal canal.
17. Describe the mesentery and the greater omentum. Not momentum, that’s in physics.
a. Mesentery – extension between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum
b. Omentum – a pouch-like extension of the visceral peritoneum
18. What’s peritonitis? What’s ascites? Watup?
a. Peritonitis – inflammation of the peritoneum
b. Ascites – is an abnormal accumulation of the fluid in the peritoneal area
19. Differentiate between mechanical digestion and chemical digestion.
a. Mechanical – breaks food into tiny particles
b. Chemical – dissolves other stuff
20. Briefly describe the process of carbohydrate digestion. It starts in the mouth, then continues along the way
21. Briefly describe the process of fat digestion. This happens in the small intestine and such.
22. Briefly describe the process of protein digestion. Begins in the stomach
23. Explain the process of absorption. After being digested, it is absorbed through the mucous membrane of the intestines
24. What structures in the small intestine increase the internal surface area? What advantage is gained by this increase in surface area? There are folds in the lining of the mucosa, among other things; more surface area means more and fasting absorption
25. Bile doesn’t cause a chemical change; what’s the effect of bile on fat, and why does this make fat digestion more efficient? Bile acts like dishwashing liquid to break up the fat into smaller drops.
26. Some people are lactose intolerant. (And some are work-intolerant. But this isn’t about one of my sons). This means that they are less able to fully digest lactose sugar. Due to a lack of the enzyme lactase; milk products should be avoided or dealt with.
Chapter 18: (1-25) on page 539
1. Define anabolism and catabolism. Are they related to cannibalism?
a. Anabolism is the chemical reaction that builds complex chemical compounds from food molecules
b. Catabolism is the process that releases energy from food molecules
c. Cannibalism is no fun
2. Explain the function of the liver. To maintain normal body glucose concentration, and aids in the digestion of fats and things
3. Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. First step in carb digestion
4. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. Second step in carb digestion
5. What is the function of the electron transport system? The energy released is in the form of high energy electrons and this creates ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate)
6. Explain the ways in which energy stored in ATP is different from energy stored in food molecules. The ATP is released quickly, as the other is done slowly.
7. List the hormones that tend to increase the amount of sugar in the blood: Growth, hydrocortisone, epinephrine, and glucagon.
8. When does fat catabolism usually occur? When the body is low on glucose to metabolize.
9. When does protein catabolism usually occur? When the body runs out of carbs and fats to metabolize.
10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. While we need these, they are made by the body itself from the raw materials at hand.
11. Name 3 water-soluble and 3 fat-soluble vitamins. Here are some: thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, pyridoxine, B vitamins, biotin, folic acid, Vitamin C, etc.
12. What is avitaminosis? Name a disorder caused by avitaminosis. What vitamin deficiency (VD) causes this disorder?
a. Avitaminoisis is a deficiency of some vitamin
b. A disorder can be scurvy
c. The deficient vitamin is for scurvy is C
13. What are the signs and symptoms of Vitamin A hypervitaminosis? Hmm, how about, dry skin, hair loss, anorexia, barfing; then beyond that, headaches, mental bizarre-ness, enlarged liver, and so 4th.
14. Name 3 minerals needed by the body. Take your pick: calcium, chlorine, cobalt, copper, iodine, iron, magnesium, manganese, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, zinc. Although chlorine is a gas, not a mineral.
15. What is the function of vitamins and minerals in the body? Helps enzymes work properly, and also keeps nerves in tip top shape
16. Differentiate between basal and total metabolic rate. The first is the rate at which food is catabolized and the second is the rate at which the body burns energy in one day.
17. Distinguish between marasmus and kwashiorkor. Say what? You’ve got to be kidding. Weird names. Marasmus is a lack of proteins and calories overall; kwash-whatever is caused when there are enough calories, but not enough proteins in the diet.
18. Name and explain 3 ways heat can be lost through the skin. Conduction (touch), convection (movement), radiation (infrared light)
19. What is the cause of malignant hyperthermia? The abnormal increase in body temperature when exposed to anesthetics is a genetic disorder.
20. Distinguish between heat exhaustion and heatstroke in terms of a person’s body temperature. The first one is a warning signal, but the body can maintain proper core temperature. The second is when “all hell breaks loose” and one can’t control one’s temperature.
21. Differentiate between absorption and assimilation. The first is the movement of food from the digestive system into the circulation; the second is when the food molecules cross into the cells.
22. Explain the advantage the body gains by having the blood go through the hepatic portal system. The newly energized blood is run through the liver to ensure it’s healthy status.
23. Diagram the ATP-ADP cycle. Include where the energy is added and where the energy is released. (See some diagram somewhere)
24. A man went on a 10-day vacation. Whoop-dee-doo. His total metabolic rate was 2,600 Calories per day. (Note that the word “calorie” is capitalized because a food Calorie is really the same as 1,000 calories, with a small “c.”) His total calorie intake was 3300 calories a day. He started his vacation at 178 pounds (81 kilograms). What did he weigh when he got back from his holiday? Hint: 1.0 pound is the same as 3,500 extra calories per day. 180 pounds. Woo Hoo.
25. Why is trying to lower a moderate fever counterproductive to the body’s attempt to fight off an infection? Well, the body increases its temp to burn invaders, so don’t lower it unless it’s necessary.
Chapters 19 - 22 in Progress. Check back later.
Chapter 19: (1-23) on page 565
1. Describe the location of the kidneys – Just above the waistline
2. Name and describe the internal structure of the kidneys – Each kidney is far more complex that YOU can imagine! There are 6 sections:
a. Cortex
b. Medulla
c. Pyramids
d. Papilla
e. Pelvis
f. Calyx
3. Define filtration, reabsorption, and secretion as they apply to kidney function.
a. Filtration – movement of water and dissolved substances out of the blood
b. Re-absorption – movement of water and dissolved substances out of the kidneys
c. Secretion – movement of ions and ammonia and some chemicals (some drugs) out of the blood into the urine
4. Briefly explain the formation of urine. Sure. Blood flows through the glomeruli creates pressure high enough to push water into the Bowman’s capsule. Water, glucose, other nutrients, sodium, and other ions are re-absorbed in an endless loop, along with stuff from other organs are dumped into the bladder.
5. Name several substances eliminated or regulated by the kidney. Water, glucose, ions, and stuff like that.
6. Explain the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. This is a device that holds motorcycles for maintenance. JK. The jux thingy regulates blood pressure by releasing hormones that, well, regulate blood pressure.
7. Describe the structure of the ureters. Narrow tubes less than 6 millimeters wide and 30 cm long that bring fluids into the bladder.
8. Chemical urinalysis provides information about what substances in the urine? pH, urea, and the abnormal presence of other things
9. Casts are sometimes found in a urine sample; what are casts? Small particles formed by deposits or minerals on the walls of the renal tubules.
10. Describe the structure of the bladder. What is the trigone? Elastic fibers and involuntary muscles with a mucous membrane. A trigone is a triangular area at the “back” of the bladder.
11. Describe the structure of the urethra. Lowest point of the urinary tract, lined with a mucous membrane, about 4 cm long in women, 20 cm long in men.
12. Briefly explain the process of micturition. Two sphincter muscles allow the ebb and flow of urination (micturition) so one doesn’t just keep leaking urine, and also to prevent urine from escaping while the man is ejaculating semen.
13. Differentiate between retention and suppression of urine. The first one is when NO pee comes out; the second is when the kidneys don’t got no urine to send to the bladder.
14. What is incontinence? What can cause it? When a person urinates spontaneously without planning or wanting to, it may be due to illness or injury, or due to the aging of the sphincter muscles.
15. What is the most common urinary disorder? What can remove urine stains and odor? Bladder infection.
16. What is hydronephrosis? Not a good thing; urine backs up into the kidney, like an earthquake making the Mississippi River back up to Minnesota.
17. What is another term for renal calculi? What are they usually made of? Kidney stones, which are made of calcium, uric acid, or both.
18. Briefly explain the following disorders: urethritis, cystitis, and pyelonephritis.
a. Urethritis – inflammation of the urethra
b. Cystitis – inflammation of the bladder
c. Pyelonephritis – inflammation of the renal pelvis and connective tissue of the kidney
19. What is proteinuria? What is hypoalbuminemia?
a. Proteinuria – protein in the urine
b. Hypoalbuminemia – Low concentration of albumin in the blood
20. Briefly describe the 3 stages of chronic renal failure.
a. One – Lost nephrons (kidney cells) are replaced by existing cells that get bigger
b. Two – Lost nephrons can’t be covered any more
c. Three – The Blood Urea Nitrogen level goes sky high
21. Explain the salt and water balance maintained by aldosterone and ADH. Well, ADH decreased the amount of urine, but if no ADH is present, the tubes are impermeable to water; with ADH, the water is re-absorbed. Aldosterone controls the re-absorption of salt.
22. What is proper blood pressure necessary for proper kidney function? To as to push the fluids through the kidneys to be filtered.
23. If a person were doing strenuous work on a hot day and perspiring heavily, would there be a great deal of ADH in the blood, or very little? Explain. Vast amounts, so as to retain water.
24. There is no #24.
Chapter 20: (1-15) on page 583
1. Name and give the location of the 3 main fluid compartments of the body. Which of these make up extracellular fluid? (Intracellular, extracellular, and bladder, or the following):
a. Intracellular – in and among cells
b. Interstitial – around cells
c. Plasma – Fluid of the blood itself
2. What factors influence the percentage of water in the body? Explain the effect of each factor.
a. One – body weight
b. Two – Fat content
c. Three – Gender
d. Four - Age
3. List the 3 sources of water for the body. Tap water, bottled water, and restaurants. JK. Liquids we drink, food we eat, and as a by-product of biochemical reactions in our bodies.
4. List the 4 organs from which fluid output occurs. Kidneys, lungs, skin, intestines
5. Differentiate between an electrolyte and a non-electrolyte. An electrical light and an election. Jk. Electrolyte is ionic. The other ain’t.
6. Name 3 important negative ions. Chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate. I think that there is a town in northern Arizona named Chloride.
7. Name 3 important positive ions. Sodium, Calcium, Potassium.
8. Explain why the body is unable to reduce its fluid output to zero no matter how dehydrated it is. Tissue and all cells have water in them, so they keep dehydrating until mummified or embalmed.
9. Explain how aldosterone influences water movement between the kidney tubules and the blood. Explain how Al Capone became a mob boss. Jk. We did this already. It increases the re-absorption of sodium
10. Explain the role of capillary blood pressure in water movement between the plasma and interstitial fluid. Another similar question, but it pushes the water along.
11. Explain the role of plasma proteins in water movement between the plasma and interstitial fluid. It’s a system that pulls or holds water.
12. Define dehydration and give a possible cause. Dehydration, which occurs when a body has less water than it needs to have, can come about due to fasting, excessive vomiting, dysentery, and disease.
13. Define over-hydration and give a possible cause. This is having too much fluid I the body. Not really possible naturally, but only if some stupid nurse sticks an I.V. into your vein, then squeezes the bag so the fluid zooms into your body really fast.
14. Name the 3 hormones that regulate urine volume. Sing “Urine the Army Now.” Jk. State where each is made and the specific effect each has on urine volume.
a. One – Aldosterone
b. Two – Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c. Three – Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
15. Atrial natriuretic hormone has the opposite effect of aldosterone. Explain its effect on water movement between the kidney tubules and the blood. ANH causes sodium to be secreted into the urine.
Chapter 21: (1-14) on page 599
1. Explain the relationship between pH and the relative concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions in a solution. High pH number means low concentrations of hydrogen ions [H]+ and high concentration of hydroxide ions [OH]-.
2. Write out the chemical reaction formula that converts carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water is in equilibrium with carbonic acid:
CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3
What enzyme acts as a catalyst for this reaction? Red blood cells contain carbonic anhydrase which increases the reaction rate
3. What is a buffer? An aqueous solution (water solution) consisting of a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base). The pH of solutions changes very little when a small amount of strong acid or base is added to it. Buffer solutions are used as a means of keeping pH at a nearly constant value in a wide variety of chemical applications. Many life forms thrive only in a relatively small pH range; an example of a buffer solution is blood. Who is Buffer, the Vampire Slayer? Jk
4. Explain how a buffer pair would react if more hydrogen ions were added to the blood. Limit change in pH.
5. Explain how a buffer pair would react if more hydroxide ions were added to the blood. Limit change in pH.
6. List the 4 changes that occur in the blood as the result of buffering fixed acids.
First of all, life in mammals are limited to a pH range between 6.8 and 7.8. Beyond those limits we end up with cellular failure.
7. Explain the respiratory mechanism of pH control. Oxygen is a prime part of water and hydroxide. Carbon dioxide is sent out of the body via the lungs. If pH changes, this loops adjusts.
8. Describe how changes in the respiration rate can affect blood pH, and how it can return the pH to optimum levels. If one slows breathing, there will be a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood, which then affects the carbonic acid concentration, thus lowering the pH and setting into motion higher breathing rates. Plus, artery blood has a higher pH than venal blood.
9. Explain how the chemical reaction that occurs in the distal tubule of the kidney using NaH2PO4 (monosodium phosphate) to remove hydrogen ions from the blood. The kidneys remove excess acid from the blood. One way is to change Na2HPO4 (disodium phosphate) into NaH2PO4 (monosodium phosphate) which then goes to the bladder.
10. Define acidosis and alkalosis.
a. Acidosis – Acidosis is said to occur when arterial pH falls below 7.35
b. Alkalosis – Alkalosis is said to occur when arterial pH is over 7.45
11. Explain metabolic disturbances of the buffer pair. This is the amount of bicarbonate in the pair, leading to acidosis.
12. Explain respiratory disturbances of the buffer pair. This is the amount of carbonic acid in the pair, leading to alkalosis.
13. Explain how excessive vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis and explain why normal saline can be used to correct it. First of all, vomiting tosses lots of HCl, hydrochloric acid, out of the body, causing bells and whistles to go off. Addition of NaCl, salt, puts the chlorine balance back.
14. What is the proper ratio of NaHCO3 (sodium bicarbonate) and H2CO3 (carbonic acid) in a buffer pair? 20:1. Explain how the body can use this ratio to correct uncompensated metabolic acidosis. It sets off more bells and sirens, and causes one to breathe faster.
Chapter 22: (1-24) on page 634
1. Describe structure and location of the testes (aka testicles). The testes are located in the scrotum, a small, flexible sac hanging outside the male body under the penis. Each testicle (aka testis) is an oval gland – not a round one like a ball – 3.8 cm wide. A tough membrane surrounds each one.
2. Describe the structure of the spermatozoa. (Note that this word has a similar ending as the word protozoa). Head, mid-piece, and tail. Like a tadpole.
3. List the functions of testosterone. This hormone causes a boy to evolve into a man, increases muscle strength, and increases libido.
4. List and briefly describe the reproductive ducts (not ducks) of the male reproductive system. The epididymis is a single, tightly wound coil about 6 meters long! It’s inside the scrotum. The ductus deferens, aka vas deferens, is the tube that allows the semen to leave the sac and enter the main part of the body on its trip. The ejaculatory duct is at the junction of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle, allowing semen to be dumped into the urethra.
5. List and briefly describe the glands of the male reproductive system. What does each gland contribute to the seminal fluid?
a. Seminal vesicles – pouch-like glands that donate 60% of the seminal fluid, rich in sugary fructose
b. Prostate gland – a doughnut shaped organ located below the bladder, donates about 30% of the fluid
c. Bulbourethral glands – these are pea-shaped glands that contribute only about 5% of the volume, but the fluid is a lubricant
6. Distinguish between infertility, sterility, and impotence (not importance).
a. Infertility – Low probability of producing an offspring
b. Sterility – No probability of producing an offspring
c. Impotence – Inability to achieve an erect penis
7. What is ogliospermia? What is cryptochidism?
a. Ogliospermia – decrease in sperm production
b. Cryptochidism – when the testicles haven’t dropped into the scrotum
8. Both a hydrocele and an inguinal hernia will produce swelling in the scrotum (the sac where the testicles are). Explain the difference between the two.
a. Hydrocele – too much fluid in the scrotum
b. inguinal hernia – intestines rip through their membranes and interfere
9. Describe the structure and location of the ovaries. The ovaries resemble large almonds and are on either side of the uterus.
10. Explain the development of an ovarian follicle from the primary follicle to the corpus luteum. With a beginning of 1 million oocytes, they’ve decreased to about 400,000 by onset of menses, of which only 400 will mature to a true follicle.
11. List the functions of estrogen. This hormone causes development and maturation of a girl into a woman.
12. List the functions of progesterone. Initiates menstrual cycles.
13. Describe the structure of the uterine tubes. Ducts for ovaries.
14. Describe the structure of the uterus. Like a strong pear-shaped thingy.
15. Describe the structure of the vagina. A 10-cm tube of smooth muscle
16. Describe the structure of the breast. Each is a layer of fat on top of the pectoral muscles with 15 or 20 divisions of various gland lobes
17. Explain what occurs during the proliferative phase of the reproductive cycle. This is the period between end of menstrual cycle and ovulation.
18. Explain what occurs during the secretory phase of the reproductive cycle. This starts with ovulation and lasts until menstruation begins anew.
19. Name the 4 hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive cycle. Where is each made, and what is the function of each?
a. One – Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), anterior pituitary gland, causes growth of several follicles that then secrete estrogen
b. Two – Luteinizing hormone (LH), anterior pituitary gland , matures ovum and creates more estrogen
c. Three – Estrogen, made in ovary, creates growth and lining of uterus
d. Four – Progresterone, made in ovary, starts the menstrual cycle
20. What is dysmenorrhea? What is amenorrhea?
a. Dysmenorrheal – painful menstruation
b. Amenorrhea – abnormal menstruation
21. Distinguish between salpingitis and oophoritis.
a. Salpingitis – inflammation of uterine tubes
b. Oophoritis – inflammation of the ovaries
22. What is endometriosis? When this stuff grows outside the uterus
23. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis. How do these differences relate to the role of the male and female in reproduction?
a. Spermatogenesis – the creation of spermatozoa, and millions need to be made to ensure pregnancy
b. Oogenesis – the creation of eggs or oocytes; only a few hundred need to be made to ensure pregnancy
24. Why are the testicles located outside the body cavity in the scrotum? It’s too hot for the haploid spermatozoa to survive.
END
HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3 SOLUTIONS
Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems
Chapter 15: (1 – 24) on page 447
1. Define lymph and explain its function. It is a fluid found between the cells of the human body. It enters the lymph vessels by filtration through pores in the walls of capillaries. The lymph then travels to at least one lymph node before emptying ultimately into the right or the left subclavian vein, where it mixes back with blood.
2. Name the two major lymphatic ducts and the areas of the body each of them drains.
a. Right – right upper extremity, head, neck, etc.
b. Thoracic – the remaining ¾ of body
3. Describe the structure of a lymph node. From pinhead to lima bean in size with one or more vessels entering or leaving
4. What is lymphedema? What is the cause of elephantiasis?
a. Lymphedema is a condition of localized fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system
b. Elephantiasis is a disease that is characterized by the thickening of the skin and underlying tissues, especially in the legs, male genitals and female breasts. In some cases, the disease can cause certain body parts, such as the scrotum, to swell to the size of a softball or even a basketball.
5. Explain the defense function of the lymph node. Filter bacteria and other abnormal stuff, including dirt, bad cells, etc.
6. Where is the thymus gland? What are its functions?
a. Where – is a specialized organ of the lymphoid immune system in the mediastinum in the midline of the neck.
b. Functions - The only known function of the thymus is the production of T lymphocytes (T cells), which are critical cells of the adaptive immune system. The thymus is composed of two identical lobes and is located anatomically in the anterior superior mediastinumin front of the heart and behind the sternum
7. Name the three pairs of tonsils and give the location of each.
a. Tubal – aka pharyngeal, near the back opening of the nasal cavity
b. Palatine – on each side of the throat
c. Lingual – at the base of the tongue
8. Give the location and function of the spleen. High in the upper quadrant of the abdomen, lateral to the stomach. It removes many bacteria and bad things. It also destroys worn out red blood cells while saving the iron.
9. Explain the types of nonspecific immunity. It attacks any irritant or abnormal substance that threatens the environment. This includes, skin, mucous, mucous membranes, and tears.
10. Name and differentiate the four types of specific immunity.
a. Natural active – body gets sick and develops immunity
b. Natural passive – borrowed immunity (like a baby from its mom)
c. Artificial active – vaccination with dead or weak virus
d. Artificial passive – serum (borrowed from another person)
11. What are antibodies? What are antigens?
a. Antibodies – funny shaped protein
b. Antigens – unique shaped compound that fits “like a glove” to antibody
12. Explain the role of complement in the immune system. Like a mole or secret agent system, this is a highly specific pairs of antibody-antigens that seek out and destroy bad thingies.
13. Explain the role of the macrophage in the immune system. – Wandering killer cells that hunt out and slay evil invaders
14. Explain the development and function of B cells. First of all, B cells are above average, but not genius cells, like A cells. J.K. B cells form in the liver and bone marrow before birth, but only in the marrow as adults, and make antibodies
15. Explain the development and function of T cells. T stands for “thymus” and that’s where they’re made. They make poisons to cause the death and destruction of foreign spies.
16. What is an allergy? This is a hypersensitivity of the immune system to an outside irritant.
17. What is autoimmunity? Give an example of an autoimmune disease. An overly weird response to self antigens, such as lupus.
18. What is iso-immunity? Gave an example of an iso-immunity disorder. An overly weird response to external antigens, such as in organ transplants.
19. What are HLAs? How are they related to tissue typing? HLA stands for “Human leukocyte antigen”, which are antigens found on tissue cells of the body.
20. What is SCID? What is its cause? “Severe Combined Immune Deficiency,” caused by a congenital deficiency.
21. List three causes of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
a. One – bad eating habits
b. Two - drugs
c. Three – disease or trauma
22. Differentiate between lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries. Explain how the different structure related to their function.
a. Lymphatic – tiny blind ended vessels distributed in tissue
b. Blood – tiny vessels that connect arterioles and venules.
23. Explain the role of lymph node in the spread of cancer. As this system picks up bad thingies and brings them to the nodes, they can carry cancer cells hither and yon.
24. Explain the difference in mechanism in the development of the allergic reaction of runny nose and hives, and the allergic reaction to poison ivy. Well, um, er, runny noses and such are caused by an immediate allergic reaction to something. However, a runny nose response is from B cells, while a poison ivy response is a delayed reaction due to T cells.
Chapter 16: (1-26) on pages 483-484
1. Differentiate between the respiratory membrane and the respiratory mucosa.
a. Respiratory membrane separates the alveoli from the blood
b. Respiratory mucosa is a mucous membrane that lines the respiratory tubes
2. List the function of the paranasal sinus. First, to drain nasal cavities; second, to make the skull lighter (less bone in the head); third, to resonate sounds we make.
3. What is the function of the auditory tube? It allows air pressure equilibrium in the nasal region
4. What is the function of the epiglottis? A cartilage trap door to prevent food and drink from going into the lungs
5. Describe, in decrease order of size, the air tubes of the lung. Trachea, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi
6. What constitutes an upper respiratory infection? An infection of the upper respiratory region, like ear, nose, throat, etc.
7. Describe rhinitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis.
a. Rhinitis – infection of the nose area
b. Pharyngitis – of the pharynx
c. Laryngitis – of the larynx
8. What is IRDS? What substance is missing from the lunch that causes IRDS? “Infant respiratory distress syndrome” is a breathing problem for newborns, especially if they are very small or premature.
9. Describe the pleura What is the function of the pleural fluid? Pleura cover the outer surface of the lungs and the surface of the ribs to act as a lubricant to decrease friction between the two
10. What is atelectasis? It’s bad. A collapsed lung.
11. Describe Cheyne-Stokes respiration. Not to be confused with the Cheney-Biden disagreements, this instead is a stop-go breathing pattern caused by injury, disease, heart attack, or drug o.d.
12. Differentiate between external, internal, and cellular respiration. The first is outside the cell between lungs and blood; the second is between blood and cells; the third is when the cells use the oxygen in combustion to create energy.
13. Explain the mechanical process of inspiration. In this course, it means when one breathes in, and what happens to the lungs and muscles around there.
14. Explain the mechanical process of expiration. – Exhaling and stuff.
15. Explain how gas is exchanged between the lungs and the blood, and the blood and the tissues. First, by diffusion; second, by diffusion. Confusion?
16. How is oxygen carried in the blood? On the backs of camels. JK. By the hemoglobin
17. Name and explain the volumes that make up the vital capacity. Tidal volume – the normal air that ebbs and flows; expiratory reserve is the extra air that one can exhale when forcing oneself to do so; inspiratory reserve – forced extra air intake, e.g. “take a deep breath,” and residual volume is what’s left over in one’s lungs after one exhales as much as possible.
18. Explain the function of chemoreceptors in regulating breathing. When there is too much carbon dioxide, too little oxygen, and/or too much acid in the blood, they send messages to the respiratory system to fix it.
19. Explain the function of stretch receptors in regulating breathing. These prevent one from inhaling too much and exploding the lungs.
20. What is bronchitis? Inflammation of the bronchi
21. Distinguish between lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia, and aspiration pneumonia.
a. Lobar – the entire lung
b. Broncho – scattered portions of the bronchial system
c. Aspiration – due to inhaling dust and shit
22. How is tuberculosis transmitted from person to person? What is the pathogen that causes TB? One can inhale a sneeze of an infected person, or eat/swallow the TB bacillus drops, from the mycobacterium tuberculosis.
23. What process in emphysema causes the reduction in lung surface area? Air gets trapped in alveoli, they expand, pop, and fuse with nearby tissue, thus decreasing the lung surface able to breathe in air
24. What occurs to restrict breathing in asthma? Spasms of the smooth muscle in the walls of the bronchial air passages.
25. Explain the effect smoking has on the body’s ability to move material trapped in the respiratory mucosa. Smoke paralyzes the cilia used to move the mucous along in its cleaning job, resulting in coughing. So, stop smoking.
26. Explain the role of other systems in the regulation of respiration. Everything in the body must work together to make sure that the lungs are okay.
Chapter 17: (1-26) on pages 521-522
1. Name and describe the 4 layers of the wall of the gastrointestinal (g.i.) tract.
a. One – mucosa, mucous membrane of the esophogus
b. Two – submucosa, tissue layer below the above
c. Three – sub-submucosa, ha ha, I mean muscularis, 2 layers of muscle tissue that contract to move food along
d. Four – serosa, outermost covering of the g.i. tract
2. What’s the function of the uvula and soft palate?
a. Uvula – prevents food from entering nasal cavities
b. Soft palate – also prevents food from entering nasal cavities
3. Explain the function of the different types of teeth.
a. Incisors, to rip and tear
b. Molars, to crush and pulverize
4. Describe the 3 main parts of the tooth.
a. One – Crown
b. Two – Neck
c. Three - Root
5. What is leukoplakia? What could possibly develop from that? White patches ini the mouth that may become tumors; often found in the mouths of smokers
6. Distinguish between gingivitis and periodontitis. Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums, while periodontitis is the inflammation of the root of the tooth near the bone
7. Name the 3 pairs of salivary glands and describe where the duct from each enters the mouth.
a. One – Parotid, below and in front of each ear
b. Two – Submandibular, either side of the tongue’s “frenulum”
c. Three – Sublingual, floor of the mouth
8. What is the function of the upper and lower esophageal sphincter muscles? Beats me. How about the cardiac and pyloric ones? Cardiac one keeps the swallowed food down, the other sends the food along into the intestine
9. Define peristalsis. Okay, I will. Wavelike muscles contraction of the muscularis layer that move food through the g.i. tract.
10. What are the 3 parts of the triple therapy used to treat ulcers?
a. One – bismuth subsalicylate (e.g., Pepto-Bismol)
b. Two – tetracycline (anti-biotic)
c. Three – metronidazole or chlarithromycin (more anti-biotic)
11. Explain how bile from the liver and gallbladder reaches the small intestine. What is the function of cholecystokinin? Well, the liver and gallbladder have pipes or ducts that combine into one large duck (quack quack) dumping the bile into a cool tiny organ called the duodenum. Meanwhile, cholecystokinin is a hormone that stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder to shove the bile into the duodenum
12. What is the relationship between body weight and formation of gall stones? Fat people have more cholesterol, which leads to creation of gallstones.
13. What is hepatitis? What are the signs and symptoms of hepatitis?
Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver, with jaundice, liver enlargement, anorexia, abdominal discomfort, gray-white feces, dark urine.
14. What is contained in pancreatic juice? Enzymes that digest all types of foods
15. What do the bacteria in the large intestine contribute to the body? The by-products of these nice bacteria are vitamin K and Vitamin B
16. List the 7 subdivisions of new Pulte Homes. Just kidding. The 7 subdivisions of the large intestine: cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anal canal.
17. Describe the mesentery and the greater omentum. Not momentum, that’s in physics.
a. Mesentery – extension between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum
b. Omentum – a pouch-like extension of the visceral peritoneum
18. What’s peritonitis? What’s ascites? Watup?
a. Peritonitis – inflammation of the peritoneum
b. Ascites – is an abnormal accumulation of the fluid in the peritoneal area
19. Differentiate between mechanical digestion and chemical digestion.
a. Mechanical – breaks food into tiny particles
b. Chemical – dissolves other stuff
20. Briefly describe the process of carbohydrate digestion. It starts in the mouth, then continues along the way
21. Briefly describe the process of fat digestion. This happens in the small intestine and such.
22. Briefly describe the process of protein digestion. Begins in the stomach
23. Explain the process of absorption. After being digested, it is absorbed through the mucous membrane of the intestines
24. What structures in the small intestine increase the internal surface area? What advantage is gained by this increase in surface area? There are folds in the lining of the mucosa, among other things; more surface area means more and fasting absorption
25. Bile doesn’t cause a chemical change; what’s the effect of bile on fat, and why does this make fat digestion more efficient? Bile acts like dishwashing liquid to break up the fat into smaller drops.
26. Some people are lactose intolerant. (And some are work-intolerant. But this isn’t about one of my sons). This means that they are less able to fully digest lactose sugar. Due to a lack of the enzyme lactase; milk products should be avoided or dealt with.
Chapter 18: (1-25) on page 539
1. Define anabolism and catabolism. Are they related to cannibalism?
a. Anabolism is the chemical reaction that builds complex chemical compounds from food molecules
b. Catabolism is the process that releases energy from food molecules
c. Cannibalism is no fun
2. Explain the function of the liver. To maintain normal body glucose concentration, and aids in the digestion of fats and things
3. Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. First step in carb digestion
4. Briefly explain the citric acid cycle. Second step in carb digestion
5. What is the function of the electron transport system? The energy released is in the form of high energy electrons and this creates ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate)
6. Explain the ways in which energy stored in ATP is different from energy stored in food molecules. The ATP is released quickly, as the other is done slowly.
7. List the hormones that tend to increase the amount of sugar in the blood: Growth, hydrocortisone, epinephrine, and glucagon.
8. When does fat catabolism usually occur? When the body is low on glucose to metabolize.
9. When does protein catabolism usually occur? When the body runs out of carbs and fats to metabolize.
10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. While we need these, they are made by the body itself from the raw materials at hand.
11. Name 3 water-soluble and 3 fat-soluble vitamins. Here are some: thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, pyridoxine, B vitamins, biotin, folic acid, Vitamin C, etc.
12. What is avitaminosis? Name a disorder caused by avitaminosis. What vitamin deficiency (VD) causes this disorder?
a. Avitaminoisis is a deficiency of some vitamin
b. A disorder can be scurvy
c. The deficient vitamin is for scurvy is C
13. What are the signs and symptoms of Vitamin A hypervitaminosis? Hmm, how about, dry skin, hair loss, anorexia, barfing; then beyond that, headaches, mental bizarre-ness, enlarged liver, and so 4th.
14. Name 3 minerals needed by the body. Take your pick: calcium, chlorine, cobalt, copper, iodine, iron, magnesium, manganese, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, zinc. Although chlorine is a gas, not a mineral.
15. What is the function of vitamins and minerals in the body? Helps enzymes work properly, and also keeps nerves in tip top shape
16. Differentiate between basal and total metabolic rate. The first is the rate at which food is catabolized and the second is the rate at which the body burns energy in one day.
17. Distinguish between marasmus and kwashiorkor. Say what? You’ve got to be kidding. Weird names. Marasmus is a lack of proteins and calories overall; kwash-whatever is caused when there are enough calories, but not enough proteins in the diet.
18. Name and explain 3 ways heat can be lost through the skin. Conduction (touch), convection (movement), radiation (infrared light)
19. What is the cause of malignant hyperthermia? The abnormal increase in body temperature when exposed to anesthetics is a genetic disorder.
20. Distinguish between heat exhaustion and heatstroke in terms of a person’s body temperature. The first one is a warning signal, but the body can maintain proper core temperature. The second is when “all hell breaks loose” and one can’t control one’s temperature.
21. Differentiate between absorption and assimilation. The first is the movement of food from the digestive system into the circulation; the second is when the food molecules cross into the cells.
22. Explain the advantage the body gains by having the blood go through the hepatic portal system. The newly energized blood is run through the liver to ensure it’s healthy status.
23. Diagram the ATP-ADP cycle. Include where the energy is added and where the energy is released. (See some diagram somewhere)
24. A man went on a 10-day vacation. Whoop-dee-doo. His total metabolic rate was 2,600 Calories per day. (Note that the word “calorie” is capitalized because a food Calorie is really the same as 1,000 calories, with a small “c.”) His total calorie intake was 3300 calories a day. He started his vacation at 178 pounds (81 kilograms). What did he weigh when he got back from his holiday? Hint: 1.0 pound is the same as 3,500 extra calories per day. 180 pounds. Woo Hoo.
25. Why is trying to lower a moderate fever counterproductive to the body’s attempt to fight off an infection? Well, the body increases its temp to burn invaders, so don’t lower it unless it’s necessary.
Chapters 19 - 22 in Progress. Check back later.
Chapter 19: (1-23) on page 565
1. Describe the location of the kidneys – Just above the waistline
2. Name and describe the internal structure of the kidneys – Each kidney is far more complex that YOU can imagine! There are 6 sections:
a. Cortex
b. Medulla
c. Pyramids
d. Papilla
e. Pelvis
f. Calyx
3. Define filtration, reabsorption, and secretion as they apply to kidney function.
a. Filtration – movement of water and dissolved substances out of the blood
b. Re-absorption – movement of water and dissolved substances out of the kidneys
c. Secretion – movement of ions and ammonia and some chemicals (some drugs) out of the blood into the urine
4. Briefly explain the formation of urine. Sure. Blood flows through the glomeruli creates pressure high enough to push water into the Bowman’s capsule. Water, glucose, other nutrients, sodium, and other ions are re-absorbed in an endless loop, along with stuff from other organs are dumped into the bladder.
5. Name several substances eliminated or regulated by the kidney. Water, glucose, ions, and stuff like that.
6. Explain the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. This is a device that holds motorcycles for maintenance. JK. The jux thingy regulates blood pressure by releasing hormones that, well, regulate blood pressure.
7. Describe the structure of the ureters. Narrow tubes less than 6 millimeters wide and 30 cm long that bring fluids into the bladder.
8. Chemical urinalysis provides information about what substances in the urine? pH, urea, and the abnormal presence of other things
9. Casts are sometimes found in a urine sample; what are casts? Small particles formed by deposits or minerals on the walls of the renal tubules.
10. Describe the structure of the bladder. What is the trigone? Elastic fibers and involuntary muscles with a mucous membrane. A trigone is a triangular area at the “back” of the bladder.
11. Describe the structure of the urethra. Lowest point of the urinary tract, lined with a mucous membrane, about 4 cm long in women, 20 cm long in men.
12. Briefly explain the process of micturition. Two sphincter muscles allow the ebb and flow of urination (micturition) so one doesn’t just keep leaking urine, and also to prevent urine from escaping while the man is ejaculating semen.
13. Differentiate between retention and suppression of urine. The first one is when NO pee comes out; the second is when the kidneys don’t got no urine to send to the bladder.
14. What is incontinence? What can cause it? When a person urinates spontaneously without planning or wanting to, it may be due to illness or injury, or due to the aging of the sphincter muscles.
15. What is the most common urinary disorder? What can remove urine stains and odor? Bladder infection.
16. What is hydronephrosis? Not a good thing; urine backs up into the kidney, like an earthquake making the Mississippi River back up to Minnesota.
17. What is another term for renal calculi? What are they usually made of? Kidney stones, which are made of calcium, uric acid, or both.
18. Briefly explain the following disorders: urethritis, cystitis, and pyelonephritis.
a. Urethritis – inflammation of the urethra
b. Cystitis – inflammation of the bladder
c. Pyelonephritis – inflammation of the renal pelvis and connective tissue of the kidney
19. What is proteinuria? What is hypoalbuminemia?
a. Proteinuria – protein in the urine
b. Hypoalbuminemia – Low concentration of albumin in the blood
20. Briefly describe the 3 stages of chronic renal failure.
a. One – Lost nephrons (kidney cells) are replaced by existing cells that get bigger
b. Two – Lost nephrons can’t be covered any more
c. Three – The Blood Urea Nitrogen level goes sky high
21. Explain the salt and water balance maintained by aldosterone and ADH. Well, ADH decreased the amount of urine, but if no ADH is present, the tubes are impermeable to water; with ADH, the water is re-absorbed. Aldosterone controls the re-absorption of salt.
22. What is proper blood pressure necessary for proper kidney function? To as to push the fluids through the kidneys to be filtered.
23. If a person were doing strenuous work on a hot day and perspiring heavily, would there be a great deal of ADH in the blood, or very little? Explain. Vast amounts, so as to retain water.
24. There is no #24.
Chapter 20: (1-15) on page 583
1. Name and give the location of the 3 main fluid compartments of the body. Which of these make up extracellular fluid? (Intracellular, extracellular, and bladder, or the following):
a. Intracellular – in and among cells
b. Interstitial – around cells
c. Plasma – Fluid of the blood itself
2. What factors influence the percentage of water in the body? Explain the effect of each factor.
a. One – body weight
b. Two – Fat content
c. Three – Gender
d. Four - Age
3. List the 3 sources of water for the body. Tap water, bottled water, and restaurants. JK. Liquids we drink, food we eat, and as a by-product of biochemical reactions in our bodies.
4. List the 4 organs from which fluid output occurs. Kidneys, lungs, skin, intestines
5. Differentiate between an electrolyte and a non-electrolyte. An electrical light and an election. Jk. Electrolyte is ionic. The other ain’t.
6. Name 3 important negative ions. Chloride, bicarbonate, and phosphate. I think that there is a town in northern Arizona named Chloride.
7. Name 3 important positive ions. Sodium, Calcium, Potassium.
8. Explain why the body is unable to reduce its fluid output to zero no matter how dehydrated it is. Tissue and all cells have water in them, so they keep dehydrating until mummified or embalmed.
9. Explain how aldosterone influences water movement between the kidney tubules and the blood. Explain how Al Capone became a mob boss. Jk. We did this already. It increases the re-absorption of sodium
10. Explain the role of capillary blood pressure in water movement between the plasma and interstitial fluid. Another similar question, but it pushes the water along.
11. Explain the role of plasma proteins in water movement between the plasma and interstitial fluid. It’s a system that pulls or holds water.
12. Define dehydration and give a possible cause. Dehydration, which occurs when a body has less water than it needs to have, can come about due to fasting, excessive vomiting, dysentery, and disease.
13. Define over-hydration and give a possible cause. This is having too much fluid I the body. Not really possible naturally, but only if some stupid nurse sticks an I.V. into your vein, then squeezes the bag so the fluid zooms into your body really fast.
14. Name the 3 hormones that regulate urine volume. Sing “Urine the Army Now.” Jk. State where each is made and the specific effect each has on urine volume.
a. One – Aldosterone
b. Two – Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c. Three – Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
15. Atrial natriuretic hormone has the opposite effect of aldosterone. Explain its effect on water movement between the kidney tubules and the blood. ANH causes sodium to be secreted into the urine.
Chapter 21: (1-14) on page 599
1. Explain the relationship between pH and the relative concentration of hydrogen and hydroxide ions in a solution. High pH number means low concentrations of hydrogen ions [H]+ and high concentration of hydroxide ions [OH]-.
2. Write out the chemical reaction formula that converts carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water is in equilibrium with carbonic acid:
CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3
What enzyme acts as a catalyst for this reaction? Red blood cells contain carbonic anhydrase which increases the reaction rate
3. What is a buffer? An aqueous solution (water solution) consisting of a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a weak base). The pH of solutions changes very little when a small amount of strong acid or base is added to it. Buffer solutions are used as a means of keeping pH at a nearly constant value in a wide variety of chemical applications. Many life forms thrive only in a relatively small pH range; an example of a buffer solution is blood. Who is Buffer, the Vampire Slayer? Jk
4. Explain how a buffer pair would react if more hydrogen ions were added to the blood. Limit change in pH.
5. Explain how a buffer pair would react if more hydroxide ions were added to the blood. Limit change in pH.
6. List the 4 changes that occur in the blood as the result of buffering fixed acids.
First of all, life in mammals are limited to a pH range between 6.8 and 7.8. Beyond those limits we end up with cellular failure.
7. Explain the respiratory mechanism of pH control. Oxygen is a prime part of water and hydroxide. Carbon dioxide is sent out of the body via the lungs. If pH changes, this loops adjusts.
8. Describe how changes in the respiration rate can affect blood pH, and how it can return the pH to optimum levels. If one slows breathing, there will be a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood, which then affects the carbonic acid concentration, thus lowering the pH and setting into motion higher breathing rates. Plus, artery blood has a higher pH than venal blood.
9. Explain how the chemical reaction that occurs in the distal tubule of the kidney using NaH2PO4 (monosodium phosphate) to remove hydrogen ions from the blood. The kidneys remove excess acid from the blood. One way is to change Na2HPO4 (disodium phosphate) into NaH2PO4 (monosodium phosphate) which then goes to the bladder.
10. Define acidosis and alkalosis.
a. Acidosis – Acidosis is said to occur when arterial pH falls below 7.35
b. Alkalosis – Alkalosis is said to occur when arterial pH is over 7.45
11. Explain metabolic disturbances of the buffer pair. This is the amount of bicarbonate in the pair, leading to acidosis.
12. Explain respiratory disturbances of the buffer pair. This is the amount of carbonic acid in the pair, leading to alkalosis.
13. Explain how excessive vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis and explain why normal saline can be used to correct it. First of all, vomiting tosses lots of HCl, hydrochloric acid, out of the body, causing bells and whistles to go off. Addition of NaCl, salt, puts the chlorine balance back.
14. What is the proper ratio of NaHCO3 (sodium bicarbonate) and H2CO3 (carbonic acid) in a buffer pair? 20:1. Explain how the body can use this ratio to correct uncompensated metabolic acidosis. It sets off more bells and sirens, and causes one to breathe faster.
Chapter 22: (1-24) on page 634
1. Describe structure and location of the testes (aka testicles). The testes are located in the scrotum, a small, flexible sac hanging outside the male body under the penis. Each testicle (aka testis) is an oval gland – not a round one like a ball – 3.8 cm wide. A tough membrane surrounds each one.
2. Describe the structure of the spermatozoa. (Note that this word has a similar ending as the word protozoa). Head, mid-piece, and tail. Like a tadpole.
3. List the functions of testosterone. This hormone causes a boy to evolve into a man, increases muscle strength, and increases libido.
4. List and briefly describe the reproductive ducts (not ducks) of the male reproductive system. The epididymis is a single, tightly wound coil about 6 meters long! It’s inside the scrotum. The ductus deferens, aka vas deferens, is the tube that allows the semen to leave the sac and enter the main part of the body on its trip. The ejaculatory duct is at the junction of the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicle, allowing semen to be dumped into the urethra.
5. List and briefly describe the glands of the male reproductive system. What does each gland contribute to the seminal fluid?
a. Seminal vesicles – pouch-like glands that donate 60% of the seminal fluid, rich in sugary fructose
b. Prostate gland – a doughnut shaped organ located below the bladder, donates about 30% of the fluid
c. Bulbourethral glands – these are pea-shaped glands that contribute only about 5% of the volume, but the fluid is a lubricant
6. Distinguish between infertility, sterility, and impotence (not importance).
a. Infertility – Low probability of producing an offspring
b. Sterility – No probability of producing an offspring
c. Impotence – Inability to achieve an erect penis
7. What is ogliospermia? What is cryptochidism?
a. Ogliospermia – decrease in sperm production
b. Cryptochidism – when the testicles haven’t dropped into the scrotum
8. Both a hydrocele and an inguinal hernia will produce swelling in the scrotum (the sac where the testicles are). Explain the difference between the two.
a. Hydrocele – too much fluid in the scrotum
b. inguinal hernia – intestines rip through their membranes and interfere
9. Describe the structure and location of the ovaries. The ovaries resemble large almonds and are on either side of the uterus.
10. Explain the development of an ovarian follicle from the primary follicle to the corpus luteum. With a beginning of 1 million oocytes, they’ve decreased to about 400,000 by onset of menses, of which only 400 will mature to a true follicle.
11. List the functions of estrogen. This hormone causes development and maturation of a girl into a woman.
12. List the functions of progesterone. Initiates menstrual cycles.
13. Describe the structure of the uterine tubes. Ducts for ovaries.
14. Describe the structure of the uterus. Like a strong pear-shaped thingy.
15. Describe the structure of the vagina. A 10-cm tube of smooth muscle
16. Describe the structure of the breast. Each is a layer of fat on top of the pectoral muscles with 15 or 20 divisions of various gland lobes
17. Explain what occurs during the proliferative phase of the reproductive cycle. This is the period between end of menstrual cycle and ovulation.
18. Explain what occurs during the secretory phase of the reproductive cycle. This starts with ovulation and lasts until menstruation begins anew.
19. Name the 4 hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive cycle. Where is each made, and what is the function of each?
a. One – Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), anterior pituitary gland, causes growth of several follicles that then secrete estrogen
b. Two – Luteinizing hormone (LH), anterior pituitary gland , matures ovum and creates more estrogen
c. Three – Estrogen, made in ovary, creates growth and lining of uterus
d. Four – Progresterone, made in ovary, starts the menstrual cycle
20. What is dysmenorrhea? What is amenorrhea?
a. Dysmenorrheal – painful menstruation
b. Amenorrhea – abnormal menstruation
21. Distinguish between salpingitis and oophoritis.
a. Salpingitis – inflammation of uterine tubes
b. Oophoritis – inflammation of the ovaries
22. What is endometriosis? When this stuff grows outside the uterus
23. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis. How do these differences relate to the role of the male and female in reproduction?
a. Spermatogenesis – the creation of spermatozoa, and millions need to be made to ensure pregnancy
b. Oogenesis – the creation of eggs or oocytes; only a few hundred need to be made to ensure pregnancy
24. Why are the testicles located outside the body cavity in the scrotum? It’s too hot for the haploid spermatozoa to survive.
END
Monday, February 15, 2010
LESSON 7
Bio 1361 LESSON 7
MONDAY, February 15, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Gather overdue papers
C. Running Grades
D. Questions
E. Lupercalia
II ESSAY 3 FOR THIS WEEK
Henry Gray (1827–1861), due Thursday, 2/18
III Review of Lesson 6 - Chapters 15, 16:
A. Respiration – Lungs breathe air
78% N2 (inert gas), 21% O2 (gas), Ar (gas), CO2 (gas)
B. Digestion
C. Lymph
IV Lab 4: Stuff dealing with chapters 15-22
V LESSON 7. Chapters 17, 18, 19: Digestion, Nutrition, and Urinary Systems
VI HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3:
Read Chapters* 15-22 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 24) on page 447, (1-26) on pages 483-484, (1-26) on pages 521-522, (1-25) on page 539, (1-23) on page 565, (1-15) on page583, (1-14) on page 599, and (1-24) on page 634.Turn in Thursday, 2/18
VII READ, ANSWER QUESTIONS ON HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3 UNTIL END OF PERIOD
*From Textbook
MONDAY, February 15, 2010
Dr Dave Menke, Instructor
I Logistics
A. Return Papers
B. Gather overdue papers
C. Running Grades
D. Questions
E. Lupercalia
II ESSAY 3 FOR THIS WEEK
Henry Gray (1827–1861), due Thursday, 2/18
III Review of Lesson 6 - Chapters 15, 16:
A. Respiration – Lungs breathe air
78% N2 (inert gas), 21% O2 (gas), Ar (gas), CO2 (gas)
B. Digestion
C. Lymph
IV Lab 4: Stuff dealing with chapters 15-22
V LESSON 7. Chapters 17, 18, 19: Digestion, Nutrition, and Urinary Systems
VI HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3:
Read Chapters* 15-22 and do the Review Exercises / Critical Thinking problems (1 – 24) on page 447, (1-26) on pages 483-484, (1-26) on pages 521-522, (1-25) on page 539, (1-23) on page 565, (1-15) on page583, (1-14) on page 599, and (1-24) on page 634.Turn in Thursday, 2/18
VII READ, ANSWER QUESTIONS ON HOMEWORK ASSIGNMENT 3 UNTIL END OF PERIOD
*From Textbook
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